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DEATH BY LORD DICTAED BY KARMA?

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jasn sn • May 10, 2002 


SRIMATHE RAMANUJAYA NAMA:

REFER POST 15386
Q-- IS DEATH BY LORD INDICATED BY KARMA?

Seems so. But death by lord does not automatically
mean that the one done to death is either a blessed
one or a not-blessed one. To establish dharma HE
incarnates to wipe out the evil doers. Why he does it,
has been explained by Sri Rama himself in his reply to
valli after he hitting him.

To Quote from the transliteration of Valmiki Ramayana
by Sri A.V.Narasimhachari 

In his reply to the accusation by Vaali that he (Rama)
became adharmic is hitting him, Rama quotes a Manu
sloka  Which runs thus (I will do my best to give an
exact translation ):"When sinners are punished by the
kings, their sins are destroyed and besides acquiring
punya, they reach swarga like sat-purusha. But if the
king fails to punish the sinner,he obtains the papa
(bad karma) of the sinner. " 

rama says, in the aagya of King Bhratha, he is
carrying out the punishment for the sinners even if
they are to be found in the forests - the sin that
vaali had committed  - being stealing the wife of the
younger brother. (the younger brother is equated to
the son and his wife , the daughter-in-law)
Rama further says that in having meted out the 
punishment, i.e. death to Vaali, vaali had now been
relieved of the  effect of the sin he has committed.-

 This is one dimension of God killing a person
whereby, the killed is relieved of a grave bad karma.
If this is not destined for vaali, his papa karma
would have continued to haunt him. 

But here a question comes, if vaali had to be killed
by somebody else for the same sin, would he have been
relieved of the effect of his sin? (please comment)

or is it because , vaali who is otherwise a
blemishless  person (!) (The first reaction from Tara
on seeing vali hit, is 'hey Arya putra!')is destined
to shed the effect of this particular sin and Rama
just happened to be there to execute it (Devotees
kindly note, there is absolutely no intention to
question but only to 'seek' the right answers)

Not only that The wailing Tara asks rama to kill her
too so that she can join him swarga. and by killing
her Rama can make 'vaali wada praayaschit' That means
any vadam, even if it  be done by an avatara purusha
gets HIM a dosham?
rama doing prayaschittam after ravana vada  is a point
to ponder. (On our recent visit to the divya desam
Shem pon sai koil in the Thiru nangoor area, we were
told by the archaka that rama was said to have visited
the temple to do praayaschitta for Ravana vadam.)

Another point to ponder is the very reason why rama
had to lose his wife and suffer. Vishnu's killing of
the wife of a sage who was said to have given asylum
to the asura chased by Vishnu and the subsequent
'curse' by the rishi that vishnu undergo the suffering
of loss of wife. Request to devotees;- does this have
any scritural / puranic basis?

Generally most vadams by the Lord indicated well in
advance. Either to redeem a sin to liberate from some
confinement. Viewed in this perspective, Death by the
Lord seems predetermined - just like any other vadam/
death predestined.

To quote another vadam, namely the killing of Kabandan
by Rama, it is clearly indicated in ramayana as 
predetermined.Kabandan (meaning headless torso) was
cursed by  a sage who was disturbed by him while doing
 a research in the medicinal use of plants and herbs.
The sage cursed him to continue to have the asura
roopa which he held only as a disguise. The otherwise
beautiful Kabandan was very disturbed by this curse
and asks for release from the curse. The sage says,
'the day Rama cuts your hands and does the samskara,
will you attain your original form.' 
This is once again reconfirmed by Indra with whom
Kabanda went on a war.
And it happened. 
Similarly ravana vadam. assuming that everything goes
on as predetermined then all vadams directly by the
Lord or indirectly as with every other death (it is HE
who has ordained every thing)are in accordance with
some karma.
One last word. I don't think the vadams are
facilitated by  some loopholes while asking for boons
by the asuras. Barring a few like Hiranya vadam and
and Ravana Vadam, not all vadams are the result of
some compulsory or inevitable circumstances. The
loopholes are there because the boon-seeking asuras
are after all driven by selfish motives and are finite
and imperfect in mind. the loophole or lapse occurs
due to that. If their penance had been shaped by
longings of immortal kind they would not have asked
for the boons of self seeking natutre. 

Please bear with me for the mistakes if any,
Regards
jayasree sarnathan

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