A question
From the Bhakti List Archives
• December 31, 1999
Sri Sita Ramachandra Parabrahmane namah. My humble namaskarams to all the bhagavata members of the forum. I have a question regarding the all pervasiveness of Lord Vishnu.The upanishads declare that Brahman(Narayana) is infinite(satyam jnanam anantham brahma-Taittriya upanishad). And the objects of the world are said to be real. So if brahman is infinite, is it not limited by the objects of the world?(as it cannot occupy the volume or space occupied by the objects). It is said that Vishnu is the greater than the greatest (mahato mahiyan).But in the scriptures we see that during the pralaya vishnu takes the prakriti in its very subtle form inside him and lets it out during the creation. Also it is said that Lord Brahma was born from the lotus flower emanating from the navel of Lord Vishnu.This implies that the created world and Lord Brahma exists outside vishnu's transcedental body. Does it not apparently contradict the all pervasiveness of Vishnu and the fact that he is infinite?(because the term 'infinite' implies that everything should exist within it and nothing exists outside it.Also saying a thing infinite means it is not conditioned by time,space or objects). But here we see that vishnu is resting in space and space is greater than him(as it contains,Lord vishnu, Lord Brahma and the material creation). I read one of Madhva's work regarding the all- pervasiveness of Hari. There he explains by saying that the space available is unlimited (as per the vedas) and Vishnu contracts himself within the available space though he is capable of extending himself beyond the space by his power. But it is not very appealing to me as no scriptural evidences are given for this point in that work. The advaitins explain this point by saying that the Nirguna Brahman is the only reality and as it is infinite it cannot accomodate the existence of many finite individual beings and a real world both within itself and outside it.So they say that jivas and the world are illusory.But this is totally contradicting the scriptures. Would you please give the visishtadvaitic perspective of this point?Also please explain me how the Lord is all pervading inspite of being a person? Please forgive me if this question is atheistic and skeptical in nature. Trying to be an insignificant servant of the Bhagavatas, L.Harikumar
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