Re: A Question

From the Bhakti List Archives

• April 14, 2000


Sri Bharat and other bhAgawatAs,

This explanation of yours is by far the most
convincing reply to that question I have heard in
several years.  That goes to show that I had not paid
attention to what our own AcAryas say on the subject.

However, I do have a question?

You mention that the brahman's influence on this world
is through his dharma-bhoota-jnana only.  I would
think "influence" means "presence" and "perception".

The Sruti on the other hand states somewhere that the
brahman perceives through both his swaroopa and his
dharma-bhoota-jnana (DBJ).  I apologize I cannot quote
the appropriate verse.  In other words, the Lord's
swaroopam and DBJ are both not only omnipresent but
also omniscient.  Could you and/or other knowledgeable
people please confirm (or negate) that?

--adiyen, muraLi kaDAmbi



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